SAGAR SINGH - IIT DELHI
Last Activity: 13 Years ago
Dear student,
Let a & b each be equal to 1. Since a ^ b are equal,
b^2 = ab ...(eq.1)
Since a equals itself, it is obvious that
a^2 = a^2 ...(eq.2)
Subtract equation 1 from equation 2. This yeilds
(a^2) - (b^2) = (a^2)-ab ...(eq. 3)
We can factor both sides of the equation; (a^2)-ab equals a(a-b). Likewise, (a^2)-(b^2) equals (a + b)(a - b) (Nothing fishy is going on here. Ths statement is perfectly true. Plug in numbers and see for yourself!) Substituting into the equation 3 , we get
(a+b)(a-b) = a (a-b) ...(eq.5)
So far, so good. Now divide both sides of the equation by (a-b) and we get
a + b = a ...(eq.5)
b = 0 ...(eq.6)
But we set b to 1 at the very beginning of this proof, so this means that
1 = 0 ...(eq.7)
This gives 5=4
Please feel free to ask your queries here. We are all IITians and here to help you in your IIT JEE preparation.
All the best.
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Sagar Singh
B.Tech, IIT Delhi
sagarsingh24.iitd@gmail.com